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« on: July 25, 2011, 10:02:00 PM »
 question paper-2

1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black  ball point pen only.

2. The test is of 1 and half hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.

3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet.

4. The CODE for this Booklet is P. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions, each carrying 1 mark:

Part I : Child Development and Pedagogy    (Q. 1 to Q. 30)

Part II: Mathematics and Science                (Q. 31 to Q. 90)

Part III: Social Studies / Social Science        (Q. 31 to Q. 90)

Part IV: Language I- (English/Hindi)            (Q. 91 to Q. 120)

Part V : Language II - (EngIish/Hindi)          (Q. 121 to Q. 150)

6. Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).

7. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V contains 30 questions for Language II. In this test booklet, only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as Language I and/or Language II is a language other than English or Hindi, please ask for a Test Booklet that contains questions on that language. The languages being answered must tally with the languages opted for in your Application Form.

8. Candidates are required to attempt questions in Part V (Language II) in a language other than the one chosen as Language I (in Part IV) from the list of languages.

9. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same.

10. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answers.



Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. A creative learner refers to one who is

(1) very talented in drawing and painting

(2) highly intelligent

(3) capable of scoring consistently good marks in tests

(4) good at lateral thinking and problem solving

Ans: (4)

2. Individual learners differ from each other in

(1) principles of growth and development

(2) rate of development

(3) sequence of development

(4) general capacity for development

Ans: (2)

3. Every learner is unique means that

(1) No two learners are alike in their abilities, interests and talents

(2) Learners do not have any common qualities, nor do they share common goals

(3) A common curriculum for all learners is not possible

(4) It is impossible to develop the potential of learners in a heterogeneous class

Ans: (1)

4. Constructivism as a theory

(1) focuses on the role of imitation

(2) emphasises the role of the learner in constructing his own view of the world

(3) emphasises on memorising information and testing through recall

(4) emphasises on the dominant role of the teacher

Ans: (2)

5. Development of concepts is primarily a part of

(1) emotional development

(2)  intellectual development

(3) physical development

(4) social development

Ans: (2)

6. Heredity is considered as a social structure.

(1) primary

(2) secondary

(3) dynamic

(4) static

Ans: (4)

7. The most intense and crucial socialization takes place

(1) throughout the life of a person

(2) during adolescence

(3) during early childhood

(4) during adulthood

Ans: (2)

8. Helping learners recapitulate or recall what they have already learnt is important because

(1) it is a convenient beginning for any classroom instruction

(2) relating new information to prior knowledge enhances learning

(3) it is an effective way of revising old lessons

(4) it enhances the memory of learners thereby strengthening learning

Ans: (2)

9. According to Piaget, during the first stage of development (birth to about 2 years age), a child learns best

(1) by using the senses

(2) by comprehending neutral words

(3) by thinking in an abstract fashion

(4) by applying newly acquired knowledge of language

Ans: (1)

10. Theory of learning which totally and only depends on 'observable behaviour' is associated with theory of learning.

(1) Cognitivist

(2) Developmental

(3) Behaviourist

(4) Constructivist

Ans: (3)

11. Multilingual character of Indian society should be seen as

(1) a hindrance in teaching-learning process

(2) a resource for enrichment of school life

(3) a challenge to teacher's capacity to motivate students to learn

(4) a factor that makes school life a complex experience for the learners

Ans: (2)

12. Creative answers require

(1) direct teaching and direct questions

(2) content-based questions

(3) open-ended questions

(4) a highly disciplined classroom

Ans: (3)

13. Diagnosis of the gaps In the learning of students should be followed by
(1) appropriate remedial measures

(2) intensive drill and practice.

(3) systematic revision of all lessons

(4) reporting the findings to learners and parents

Ans: (1)

14. Which of the following statements cannot be considered as a feature of 'learning' ?

(1) Learning is a process that mediates behaviour

(2) Learning is something that occurs as a result of certain experiences

(3) Study of behaviour is learning

(4) Unlearning is also a part of learning

Ans: (3)

15. 'Self-regulation' of learners refers to

(1) their ability to monitor their own learning

(2) creating regulations for student behaviour

(3) rules and regulations made by the student body

(4) self-discipline and control

Ans: (1)

16. Which of the following does not reflect 'teaching for understanding' ?

(1) Ask students to explain a phenomenon or a concept in their own words

(2) Teach students to provide examples to illustrate how a law works

(3) Help students see similarities and differences and generate analogies

(4) Enable students to memorize isolated facts and procedures

Ans: (4)

17. Which of the following statements is true about 'learning' ?

(1) Errors made by children indicate that no learning has taken place.

(2) Learning is effective in an environment that is emotionally positive and satisfying for the learners.

(3) Learning is not affected by emotional factors at any stage of learning.

(4) Learning is fundamentally a mental activity.

Ans: (2)

18. Human development is based on certain principles. Which of the following is not a principle of human development?

(1) Continuity

(2) Sequentiality

(3) General to Specific

(4) Reversible

Ans: (4)

19. The main purpose of assessment should be

(1) to point out the errors of the learners

(2) to measure the achievement of learners

(3) to decide if a student should be promoted to the next class

(4) to diagnose and remedy gaps in learning

Ans: (4)

20. Centrally sponsored scheme of Integrated Education for disabled children aims at providing educational opportunities to children with disabilities in

(1) regular schools

(2) special schools

(3) open schools

(4) Blind Relief Association schools

Ans: (1)

21. Which of the following is not a sign of reading difficulty among young learners? Difficulty in

(1) letter and word recognition

(2) reading speed and fluency

(3) understanding words and ideas

(4) spelling consistency

Ans: (3)

22. A teacher wants the gifted children of her 'class to achieve their potential. Which of the following should she not do to achieve her objective?

(1) Teach them to enjoy non-academic activities

(2) Teach them to manage stress

(3) Segregate them from their peers for special attention

(4) Challenge them to enhance their creativity

Ans: (3)

23. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of intrinsically motivated children?

(1) They always succeed

(2) They enjoy doing their work

(3) They display a high level of energy while working

(4) They like challenging tasks

Ans: (1)

24. Which of the following is not an appropriate tool for Formative Assessment?

(1) Assignment

(2) Oral questions

(3) Term test

(4) Quiz and games

Ans: (3)

25. Learners should not be encouraged to

(1) ask as many questions as possible both inside and outside the class

(2) actively interact with other learners in group work

(3) participate in as many co-curricular activities as possible

(4) memorize all the answers to questions which the teacher may ask

Ans: (4)

26. Irfan breaks toys and dismantles them to explore their components. What would you do?

(1) Never let Irfan play with toys

(2) Always keep a close watch

(3) Encourage his inquisitive nature and channelise his energy

(4) Make him understand that toys should not be broken

Ans: (3)

27. The statement 'Men are generally more intelligent than women'     

(1) is true

(2) may be true

(3) shows gender bias

(4) is true for different domains of intelligence

Ans: (3)

28. Understanding the principles of development of a child helps a teacher in

(1) identifying the social status of the learner

(2) identifying the economic background of the learner

(3) rationalizing why the learner ought to be taught

(4) effectively catering to the different learning styles of learners

Ans: (4)

29. Christina took her class for a field trip and after coming back, she discussed the trip with her students. It may be connotated as

(1) Assessment of Learning

(2) Assessment for Learning

(3) Learning for Assessment

(4) Learning of Assessment

Ans: (1)

30. The statement: 'An important precondition for the proper development of a child is ensuring her/his healthy physical development'

(1) is untrue as physical development does not affect other domains of development in anyway

(2) may be incorrect as development varies from individual to individual

(3) is true because physical development occupies the topmost place In the sequence of development

(4) is true because physical development is interrelated with other domains of development

Ans: (4)


Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).



Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

31. The ratio between the length and the perimeter of a rectangular plot is 1:3. What is the ratio between the length and breadth of the plot?

(1) 1: 2

(2) 2: 1

(3) 3: 2

(4) Data inadequate

Ans: (2)

32. If a * b = a2 + b2 and a . b = a2 - b2 , the value of (5 * 2) . 25 is

(1) 215

(2) 225

(3) 226

(4) 216

Ans: (4)

33. If a, b and c are three natural numbers in ascending order, then

(1) c2 - a2 > b

(2) c2 - a2 = b2   

(3) c2 - a2 < b2     

(4) c2 + b2 = a2

Ans: (1)

34. 'Buy three, get one free.' What is the percentage of discount being offered here ?

(1) 33.33%     

(2) 25%     

(3) 20%     

(4) 28.56%

Ans: (1)

35. The Value of √2 + √3 + √2 - √3 is

(1) √6

(2) 6

(3) 2√2

(4) 2√3

Ans: (3)

36. When recast, the radius of an iron rod is made one-fourth. If its volume remains constant, then the new length will become

(1) 1/4 times of the original

(2) 1/16 times of the original
(3) 16 times of the original

(4) 4 times of the original

Ans: (3)

37. Find the value of 547527/82 if 547.527/0.0082 = x

(1) x/10

(2) 10 x

(3) 100 x

(4) x/100

Ans: (3)

38. The smallest number by which 68600 must be multiplied to get a perfect cube is

(1) 5

(2) 10

(3) 8

(4) 12

Ans: (1)

39. A cyclist at 'C' is cycling towards 'B'. How far will he have to cycle from C before he is equidistant from both A and B ?

(1) 4 km

(2) 3 km

(3) 6 km

(4) 5 km

Ans: (4)

40. Unit's digit in 132003 is

(1) 1     

(2) 3     

(3) 7     

(4) 9

Ans: (3)

41. A square sheet ABCD when rotated on its diagonal AC as its axis of rotation sweeps a

(1) cone

(2) spindle

(3) cylinder

(4) trapezium

Ans: (2)

42. The area of a triangle with base x units is equal to the area of a square with side x units. Then the altitude of the triangle is

(1) x/2 units

(2) x units

(3) 2x units

(4) 3x units

Ans: (3)

43. Which is greatest among 33 and half %; 4/15 and 0.35 ?

(1) 33 and half %

(2) 4/15

(3) 0.35

(4) Cannot be compared

Ans: (3)

44. The factorisation of 25 - p2 - q2 - 2pq is

(1) (5 + p + q) (5 - p + q)

(2) (5 + p + q) (5 - P - q)

(3) (5 + p - q) (5 - p + q)

(4) (5 + p - q) (5 - p - q)

Ans: (2)

45. A rectangle is divided horizontally into two equal parts. The upper part is further divided into three equal parts and the lower part is divided into four equal parts.Which fraction of the original rectangle the shaded part ?

(1) 3/5

(2) 2/7

(3) 4/7

(4) 7/12

Ans: (4)

46. In the given figure, PS = SQ = SR and  L SPQ = 54'' . Find the measure of  L x.

(1) 54''

(2) 72''

(3) 108''

(4) 36''

Ans: (1)

47. 2x - 13, 2x - 11, 2x - 9, 2x - 7 are consecutive

(1) Prime numbers

(2) Even numbers

(3) Odd numbers

(4) Natural numbers

Ans: (3)

48. The fractional equivalent of 57.12% (approx.) is

(1) 349/625

(2) 359/625

(3) 357/625

(4) 347/625

Ans: (3)

49. The ratio of the side and height of an equilateral triangle is

(1) 2 : 1

(2) 1 : 1

(3) 2 : √3

(4) √3 : 2

Ans: (3)

50. If two adjacent sides of a square paper are decreased by 20% and 40% respectively, by what percentage does the new area decrease?

(1) 48%

(2) 50%

(3) 52%

(4) 60%


51. 4/16 - 1/8 = 3/8

6/7 - 2/9 = 4/2

The above represents the work of a student. If this error pattern continues, the student's answer to 5/11 - 2/7 will be

(1) 7/18

(2) 3/4

(3) 3/7

(4) 2/18

Ans: (2)

52. A teacher in grade-VI provided each child with a centimeter grid paper and a pair of scissors. She wanted them to explore how two-dimensional shapes can be folded into three-dimensional objects. Which of the following concepts are the students exploring?

(1) Rotation

(2) Reflection

(3) Nets

(4) Decimals


53. When doing exponents, the work observed in a learner's notebook was as follows :

43 x 42 = 45

64 x 64 = 68

73 x 37 = 2110

The learner has not understood how to

(1) add exponents

(2) add exponents and multiply

(3) multiply numbers with same base

(4) multiply numbers with different bases

Ans: (4)

54. Teachers, while discussing problem-solving as an approach to teaching of mathematics, articulated four views. Which of the following views does not justify the real meaning of this approach?

(1) 'I think questions on problem-solving should be made from situations based on real life.'

(2) 'I think many questions found in the mathematics textbook can be used for problem-solving.'

(3) 'I think it is better to connect problem-solving with general mathematics class.' 

(4) 'I think there is no correlation between problem-solving and mathematical reasoning.'


55. Given linear equations I, II and III, a learner is not able to solve III algebraically. The most likely area of difficulty is that the learner has not understood


(1) that two equations can be added or subtracted to solve them

(2) that two equations can be solved by method of substitution

(3) the method of solving equations using graphs

(4) that both the equations in III can be altered by multiplying with suitable numbers

Ans: (2)

56.When introducing mensuration, a teacher writes all the formulae on the board before proceeding further. This reflects that she is following the

(1) Inductive approach

(2) Deductive approach

(3) Experimental approach

(4) Practical approach

Ans: (2)

57. Ameena is playing with matchsticks and adds one  at each stage :  Appu, on the other hand, makes a table:   

Number of L's 1 2 3 ...
Number of matchsticks 2 4 6 ..

What is your observation about the two children in this situation?

(1) Ameena is only playing and Appu is doing mathematics

(2) Ameena will need lots of matchsticks to come to a generalisation. However, Appu would be faster

(3) Both Ameena and Appu are trying to make generalisations

(4) Ameena would be learning by doing and Appu may not be able to see the pattern at all

Ans: (1)

58. To be good in mathematics, one needs to

(1) remember solutions

(2) have mastery over calculations

(3)  create and formulate problems through abstract thinking and logical reasoning

(4) memorise formulae

Ans: (3)

59. Students make errors while solving mathematical problems because 

(1) they do not practise enough

(2) they do not refer to multiple textbooks

(3) their socio-economic status affects their performance

(4) they make alternative interpretations of concepts in their attempt to make meaning

Ans: (4)     

60. With an activity on paper folding, a teacher was trying to depict the relationship of the areas of a parallelogram and a triangle. Which of the following best depicts the transformation of stages?





Ans: (4)

61. Bakelite is used in making electrical appliances because it is a

(1) thermoplastic

(2) good conductor of heat

(3) good conductor of electricity

(4) good insulator of electricity

Ans: (4)

62. In which of the following cases of motion, are the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement equal ?

(1) A car moving on a straight road

(2) A car moving in a circular path

(3) A pendulum oscillating to and fro

(4) The Earth revolving around the Sun

Ans: (1)
63. LED and CFL are very commonly used as sources of light in homes. Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) CFL is better because LED contains toxic materials

(2) LED is better because CFL contains toxic materials

(3) Both are equally good

(4) Neither of them is good because both contain toxic materials

Ans: (2)

64. An air bubble inside water behaves like a

(1) concave lens     

(2) convex lens

(3) plano-convex lens

(4) concave mirror

Ans: (1)

65. A feather weighing 5 gm and a nail weighing 10 gm have the same kinetic energy. Which of the following statements is true about the momentum of the two bodies ?     

(1) The lighter body will have higher momentum

(2) The heavier body will have higher momentum

(3) Both will have equal momentum

(4) It is not possible to compare the momentum. of two objects

Ans: (2)

66. If the pressure over a liquid increases, its boiling point

(1) decreases

(2) Increases

(3) does not change

(4) first decreases and then increases

Ans: (2)

67. A doctor prescribes a medicine to treat hyperacidity. The main ingredient of the medicine is 

(1) Al(OH)3

(2) MgCl2

(3) CaC03

(4) Na2C03

Ans: (1)

68. Non-metallic oxides

(1) are acidic in nature

(2) are basic in nature

(3) are amphoteric in nature

(4) turn red litmus paper blue

Ans: (1)

69. The inner surfaces of food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because

(1) zinc is costlier than tin

(2) zinc is more reactive than tin

(3) zinc has a higher melting point than tin

(4) zinc is less reactive than tin

Ans: (2)

70. A man goes door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promises to bring back the glitter on dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting woman gives a set of gold bangles to him which he dips in a particular solution. The bangles sparkle but their weight has considerably reduced. The solution used by the impostor probably is

(1) dil. HCI

(2) cone. HCI

(3) a mixture of cone. HCI and cone. HN03

(4) cone. HN03

Ans: (3)

71. Bleeding is stopped by the application of alum to a wound because

(1) the wound is plugged by the alum chunk

(2) alum coagulates the blood and forms a clot

(3) alum reduces the temperature near the wound

(4) alum is an antiseptic

Ans: (2)

72. When an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, the colour of copper sulphate solution fades and a brownish layer is deposited over the iron nail. This is an example of

(1) combination reaction

(2) decomposition reaction

(3) double displacement reaction

(4) displacement and redox reactions

Ans: (4)

73. While diluting sulphuric acid, it is recommended that the acid should be added to water because

(1) acid has strong affinity for water

(2) acid may break the glass container

(3) dilution of acid is highly exothermic

(4) dilution of acid is highly endothermic

Ans: (3)

74. The thumb of humans moves more freely than other fingers due to the presence of

(1) pivotal joint

(2) gliding joint

(3) hinge joint

(4) saddle joint

Ans: (4)

75. Root cap is absent in

(1) Xerophytes

(2) Hydrophytes

(3) Mesophytes

(4) Halophytes

Ans: (2)

76. Adding salt and sugar to food substances helps In preserving them for a longer duration. It is because excess salt and sugar

(1) plasmolyse the microbial cells

(2) cause rupturing of microbial cells

(3) cause change in the shape of microbial cells

(4) remove water from food

Ans: (1)

77. Hormone Adrenaline

(1) helps control level of sugar in the blood

(2) helps the body to adjust stress level when one is very angry or worried

(3) helps control height

(4) helps control balance of electrolytes in the body

Ans: (2)

78. The green house effect which is causing an increase in the atmospheric temperature is mainly due to

(1) oxygen

(2) nitrogen

(3) carbon dioxide

(4) sulphur

Ans: (3)

79. Green plants appear to release oxygen instead of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere during the day time because

(1) green plants do not respire during the night time

(2) green plants respire only during the night time

(3) green plants respire during the day time but are involved in photosynthesis during the night time

(4) the rate of photosynthesis is higher than the rate of respiration during the day time

Ans: (4)

80. A common characteristic feature of plant sieve-tube cells and mammalian erythrocytes is

(1) absence of nucleus

(2) absence of chloroplast

(3) absence of cell wall

(4) presence of haemoglobin

Ans: (1)

81. Most Boards of Education have banned the dissection of animals because

(1) animals are no longer available for dissection

(2) procuring animals has become an expensive proposition

(3) there is a need to sensitise students to prevention of cruelty to animals

(4) they may spread new diseases

Ans: (3)
82. The main aim of conducting Mathematics and Science Olympiads is to

(1) promote excellence in the subject by nurturing creativity and experimentation

(2) grade students according to their capabilities

(3) help students score high marks in professional examinations

(4) grade schools based on the performance of their students

Ans: (1)

83. Four applicants for a post of TGT (Science) were asked to plan a lesson on "Consequences of Deforestation", Which one of the following lesson plans reflects the scientific approach ?

(1) Explains in detail the consequences of deforestation

(2) Provides a variety of examples to explain the concept

(3) Includes activities that children can perform in groups and draw conclusions through a Power Point presentation

(4) Mentions about the use of ICT to help students understand the concept

Ans: (3)

84. Ms. Patel, Principal of a School XYZ, is keen about integrated approach to teaching of Science rather than teaching different disciplines separately. The basis of this is

(1) non-availability of qualified teachers in her school to teach separate disciplines

(2) difficulty to adjust the teachers in the time-table

(3) difficulty of students to adjust to different teachers

(4) all the disciplines are interlinked and a teacher can draw on cross-curricular linkages

Ans: (4)

85. A teacher plans to teach "Components of Food" in Class-VI. Which of the following can be used as an essential question ?

(1) List the food items your mother serves you in lunch.

(2) Why does your mother serve you a meal with a variety of food items ?

(3) Does your mother prepare a definite set of food items for lunch every day?

(4) Do you eat all the items served in your lunch every day?

Ans: (2)

86. While teaching the concept, "force can change the shape of an object" to students, a teacher plans the following activities:

a. Explain concepts using commonly observed examples.

b. Provide a dough on a plate and ask the students to press it down with the hand.

c. Show an audio-visual''  'film explaining the concept with some examples.

The teacher is using different approaches to learning because

(1) she wants to prove her knowledge

(2) she knows she must follow her lesson plan

(3) she wants to prepare students for a test

(4) there are different kinds of learners in the class and she wants to address multiple intelligences


87. Which of the following can be assessed when Geeta is using only MCQ as a tool to assess "Nutrition in Humans" ?

(1) Analytical ability to classify food items and make a poster

(2) Misconceptions related to food habits

(3) Learners' ability to apply knowledge and prepare a role play to present in the morning assembly

(4) Learners' ability to comprehend the importance of components of food and write a long essay

Ans: (2)

88. A Science teacher plans group activities to teach "Properties of Air" to her students of Class-VI. Which one set of attributes would she like to have in the students she selects as group leaders ?

(1) Freedom to choose roles, work at their own pace and understanding

(2) Ordering students to take roles and deliver in consonance with their understanding

(3) Giving major roles to brighter students to ensure the group finishes first

(4) Assigning roles as per capability, motivating and coordinating among the group members

Ans: (4)

89. While selecting a performance task to help students develop research oriented skills in a Science class, a teacher may pick up a topic

(1) from the content given in the syllabus which must be completed in time

(2) which majority of the students in a class find interesting

(3) which she thinks is important for the students

(4) related to a problem faced by students in their day-to-day functioning and which is a part of the concepts to be covered for this class

Ans: (4)

90. While investigating 'how water affects the germination of seeds', a teacher asked the students to soak bean seeds on a bed of cotton wool for a few days and observe the changes. What is the guideline that she forgot to mention?
To place

(1) many seeds on wet cotton

(2) a few seeds on wet cotton

(3) many seeds on dry cotton

(4) a few seeds on dry cotton

Ans: (2)

Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).



Directions: Based on your reading of the passage given below, answer the next three questions (Q. No. 31 to 33) , by selecting the most appropriate option.

A Letter For You

"'Civics is boring.' You may have heard this from your students. You may have felt that they had a point. Syllabi of Civics in our country tends to focus on formal political institutions of government. The textbooks are full of constitutional, legal and procedural details presented in a dry and abstract manner. No wonder children experience a disconnect between the theory they read in the textbook and what they see in real life around them. This is perhaps what makes Civics 'boring' for young adults in a country otherwise full of passion for politics."

Source: Democratic Politics-I
IX Social Science

31. What is the context in which the word 'disconnect' is used in the passage ?

(1) Civics teaching is dull in schools

(2) Children find themselves unable to relate what happens in the real world with what they read in the textbooks

(3) It is related to how Civics textbooks are written and transacted

(4) It is related to the attitude of students towards schooling in general and Civics in particular


32. Which one of the following exemplifies the best pedagogical practice for the classroom in transacting the Civics syllabi?

(1) The teacher teaches the Civics textbook cover to cover explaining everything in detail and prepares students well.

(2) The teacher makes the subject interesting by relating anecdotes and short stories but believes firmly in the textbook and lecture method.

(3) The teacher follows her lesson plan meticulously and uses many reference books for making notes.

(4) The teacher involves her students in youth parliament and encourages them to critically analyse the content in the textbooks by comparing it with what they see in reality.


33. The 'dry and abstract' presentation of content in Civics textbooks can be brought alive by a teacher     

(1) through real life examples and episodes followed by debates and, discussions

(2) if the abstract aspects are quickly glossed over

(3) through very clear and thorough explanation of the dry concepts

(4) with the help of short tests to reinforce the difficult concepts


34. Which one of the following statements about water conservation is incorrect ?

(1) Water is a non-renewable resource.

(2) Underground water level could be improved with forest or vegetation covers.

(3) Controlling surface runoff is one of the ways to conserve water.

(4) Sprinklers effectively control evaporation.


35. Around 3900 years ago, the earliest cities, Harappa and Mohanjodaro, began to come to an end because of various reasons, Which one of the following is not one of those reasons?

(1) There was internal rivalry and warfare between cities                                 
(2) Deforestation and     floods brought in destruction                                 
(3) Grazing of green cover by herds of cattle destroyed the soil cover                     
(4) Rivers dried up leading to the end of the cities


36. Most of the 'Mahajanapadas' were fortified because

(1) of availability of wood, brick and stones, in the area

(2) they reflected their wealth and power

(3) the rulers were scared of attack and wanted to ensure they were protected

(4) they were symbols of their 'rich' warrior tradition


37. When it is 10:00 a.m. in London in June, the Indian Standard Time will be

(1) 2:30 p.m.             

(2) 3:00 p.m.                 

(3) 3:30 p.m.                 

(4) 2:00 p.m.


38. In the following diagram, which arrow shows the South-East direction?

(1) D

(2) B

(3) F

(4) H


39. A map uses a scale in which 1 cm on the map covers 20 meters on the ground. If two places are 5 cm apart on the map, the actual distance between them is

(1) 20 meters

(2) 150 meters

(3) 200 meters

(4) 100 meters


40. For creating an effective administration practice in India, which one of the following was adopted by the British Government?

(1) Military expedition

(2) Practice of surveying

(3) Practice of land revenue collection

(4) Practice of exploiting native population


41. The two main systems of Indigo cultivation were

(1) Nij and Kij

(2) Nij and Ryoti

(3) Kharif and Rabi

(4) Nij and terrace farming


42. What problems did shifting cultivators face under the British rule?

(1) Exploitation

(2) Decline in their agricultural production

(3) Their movement was restricted

(4) Unemployment


43. What was the main reason behind the destruction of Somnath temple by Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni ?

(1) He wanted to build a palace there

(2) He did not like the architecture of the temple

(3) He tried to win credit as a great hero of Islam

(4) He wanted to use the temple for some other purpose


44. During the medieval period in India, temples were regarded as a hub of

(1) architecture

(2) cultural activities

(3) extensive foreign trade

(4) Sufi movement


45. In Bengal, temples and other religious structures were often built by individuals or groups who were becoming powerful in order to

(1) ensure that they did good 'karma'

(2) demonstrate a marvel of architecture to the society

(3) add value to the surroundings

(4) demonstrate their power, proclaim their piety and gain followers


46. A system of structure and practice in which men dominate, oppress and exploit women is called

(1) Hierarchy

(2) Fascism

(3) Monarchy

(4) Patriarchy

47. Which of the following statements is not an objective of social advertising?     

(1) To change attitudes and mindset, as people influence people

(2) To target social networks and social groups

(3) To advertise products on social networking sites for personal commercial value

(4) To motivate members of the public to engage in voluntary social activity


48. Which of the following statements about 'prasastis' is an incorrect statement ?

(1) The achievements of rulers or kings are described in 'prasastis'.

(2) They were written by scholars/poets/ learned people for the purpose of praising the kings and earning their patronage.

(3) Usually the kings themselves wrote them.

(4) They are valuable sources of history of the period to which they belong.


49. What does PHC stand for?         

(1) Private Health Centre             

(2) Public Health Court             

(3) Public Health Centre             

(4) Public Health Corporation

50. Which of the following is not a primary economic activity ?                     

(1) Mining                         

(2) Agriculture                     

(3) Trading                         

(4) Fishing

51. Industrialists set up industries when

(1) they can develop their own native places

(2) they find favourable government policies

(3) towns can be developed

(4) incentives provided by the government reduce their profit

52. Which one of the following explains the term 'market' ?     

(1) A local area which has conducive conditions for setting up an industry

(2) A shop to sell the goods manufactured by the industrialist

(3) The potential trade in a particular type of good being produced by an industry

(4) A mall which sells products


53. Which of the following pedagogical approaches exhibited by four different teachers for teaching 'Industrialisation' is most appropriate ?

(1) The teacher believes that she must cover the entire process of industrialisation in detail and brings in copious material to the class

(2) The teacher asks the class to read the entire lesson silently and asks questions if they have not understood

(3) The teacher is a believer in the timeless glory of the textbook and teaches by explaining every word and asking comprehension questions to students

(4) The teacher is aware of multiple approaches to pedagogy and plans a trip to an industry in the nearby area to demonstrate the concepts, discuss and debate in groups the issues and then in a plenary, sum up the conclusions


54. Which of the following statements about 'ancient manuscripts' is not correct?

(1) Some manuscripts were engraved on stone or metal

(2) They were usually written on palm leaves

(3) They are the primary sources of the period they reflect

(4) They were handwritten and then printed


55. In the middle of the 19th century, British historians divided history of India into three periods - Hindu India, Muslim India and British India. What is the basis of this division?

(1) It was convenient and easy to remember

(2) It was based on the idea that religion of the rulers was an important historical change

(3) History of England is also written in a similar way

(4) Britishers felt they were more knowledgeable at that point of time in history and so used this division


56. Match the following and pick the correct option:

a. Agriculture          I. Cultivation of grapes

b. Horticulture        II. Growing crops and farming

c. Pisiculture           III. Growing flowers, fruits and vegetables

d. Viticulture           IV. Breeding of fish

(1) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III

(2) a-II, h-III, c-IV, d-I

(3) a-III, b-R, c-I, d-IV

(4) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I


57. Which development facilitated the debates and discussions about social customs and practices on a wider scale during the 19th century?

(1) Magazines

(2) Theatre

(3) Movies

(4) Radio


58. Social reformers like Raja Ram Mohan Roy used the following strategy to campaign about the prevailing social injustices (e.g. sati) against women.

(1) They took the help of the popular social milieu

(2) They used the influence of the government

(3) They used a verse or sentence which is in the ancient sacred texts to prove their stand

(4) They took the help of popular nationalist leaders


Directions: Based on your reading of the passage given below, answer the next two questions (Q.No. 59 & 60), by selecting the most appropriate option.

"By the end of the nineteenth century, women themselves were actively working for reform. They wrote books, edited magazines, founded schools and training centres and set up women's associations. From the early twentieth century, they formed political pressure groups to push through laws for female suffrage (the right to vote) and better health -care and education for women. Women from all communities joined various kinds of 'nationalist and socialist movements from the 1920s.
In the twentieth century, leaders such as Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose lent their support to demands for greater equality and freedom for women. Nationalist leaders promised that there would be full suffrage for all men and women after Independence. However, till then they asked women to concentrate on the anti-British struggles."

Source: 'Our Pasts'-III, Part-II

59. Which of the following statements best describes the inference that can be drawn from the above extract with respect to the strategy used by leaders of India's national movement?

(l) Participation of women would make the struggle for Independence much more attractive

(2) Women and men were encouraged to follow a policy of 'give and take'

(3) Indian women through their speeches could draw many more people into the movement

(4) Nationalist leaders enlisted the support of the women to their cause by promising them the right to vote after Independence


60. Which one of the following statements regarding women's rights is untrue based on the passage?

(1) Women were now becoming vocal in their demands for rights, including political rights

(2) Many women from all communities came forward to join the struggle for freedom

(3) Women got the support of nationalist leaders

(4) Women's writings were not appreciated


61. "Throughout the 19th century, most educated women were taught at home by liberal fathers and husbands instead of sending them to schools,"

Which of -the following statements is not a correct reason for the above trend ?

(1) People feared that schools would take girls away from home

(2) Men derived great pleasure by teaching girls at home

(3) Girls had to travel through public places in order to reach school and their safety remained a concern

(4) There was a fear that schooling would prevent girls from doing their domestic duties


62. Why is mining called a primary activity?

(1) It involves production from the natural resources of the earth

(2) It is one of the earliest forms of human activities

(3) It brings a lot of money to the government

(4) It is the biggest employer of workers


63. Which of the following is not a mineral ?     

(1) Graphite in pencil

(2) Salt used for cooking

(3) Gold and silver in jewellery

(4) Mica used for insulation


64. Which of the following was not a problem faced by India soon after Independence?

(1) Wealth and debts to be equally distributed among India, Pakistan and Great Britain

(2) Persuading the Princely States to join the Indian Union

(3) Economic development

(4) Refugees from Pakistan


65. Though India chose universal adult franchise after becoming independent, this was withheld in many other sovereign countries on the basis of certain criteria. Which of the following was not one of the criteria?

(1) Education

(2) Religion

(3) Gender

(4) Property


66. Which one of the following statements explains the essence of 'mixed economy' ?

(1) Both the States and Centre divide responsibility towards economic development

(2) Both the Public and the Private sector play a significant role m increasing production and generation of jobs

(3) Both the Public and the Private sector share the profits generated in the economy equally

(4) Both the Central and State Governments have a say in the legislation controlling the economy of the country


67. Which one among the following is not a feature of 'Lithosphere' ?

(1) 97% of the Earth's water lies in the Lithosphere

(2) Landforms are found on ocean floor also

(3) Mineral wealth is found in this sphere

(4) Mountains, plateaus and valleys form a part of Lithosphere


68. Which one of the following cannot be said about our 'planet 'Earth' ?     

(1) It is a perfect sphere

(2) It is slightly flattened at the Poles

(3) It has a bulge in the middle

(4) It is called the 'blue planet'


69. Ocean water keeps moving continuously unlike the calm water of ponds and lakes. Which one of the following categories is not one of the movements of water?

(1) Waves

(2) Water cycle

(3) Tides

(4) Currents

70. Which of the following is not an advantage of high tides?

(1) They help in fishing

(2) Electricity could be generated from them

(3) They help the local economy by drawing tourists

(4) Navigation is easier


Directions: Based on your reading of the case study given below, answer the next two questions (Q. No.71 & 72), by selecting the most appropriate option.

Rashmi has the habit of asking the surnames of persons whom she comes across for the first time. She has to place the concerned person in the varna system of Indian society. This enquiry about caste identity is resented by many people though it is not expressed openly. Things are more complicated. when' she meets a person from another region or part of India. She is unable to figure out their caste status even if that person reveals the surname. This 'world view' of Rashmi, according to her, does not affect/influence her teaching-learning transaction process. She says that it is part of her primary socialization and she cannot help it.

71. Primary socialization is

(1) social networking at the primary level

(2) learning from family and friends at an early age

(3) learning from society during adolescence

(4) memorising and imitating the teacher


72. The resentment is justified because the teacher's attitude

(1) highlights the need for socialization

(2) is purely based on personal biases

(3) is not an indictment of the stereotypes it creates'

(4) perpetuates social, political and economic inequalities


73. Most people during the 19th century felt education will have a 'corrupting' influence on women. Which of the following brings out the contextual meaning of 'corrupting' in the above sentence?

(1) Women were more corrupt than men

(2) It would bring them more money

(3) The power they gain through education would take them away from their traditional roles

(4) They would become impure

74. A teacher gives the following exercise to her students: Imagine you are a member of a nomadic community that shifts residence every 3 months. How would this change your life?

(1) The question will prove that a student's life is far safer and more enjoyable than the life of people in such situations

(2) The question will make students less egocentric and promote universal brotherhood

(3) The question will impress upon the students that facts are more important than reflection in Social Science

(4) The question will help students place themselves in new situations to gain a better understanding of the concepts involved


Directions: Based on your reading of the passage given below, answer the next two questions (Q. No.75 & 76), by selecting the most appropriate option.

"The popular perception of Social Science is that it is a non-utility subject. As a result, low self-esteem governs the classroom transactions, with both teachers and students feeling uninterested in comprehending its contents. From the initial stages of schooling, it is often suggested to students that the Natural Sciences are superior to the Social Sciences."

Source: NCF - 2005,
Teaching of Social Sciences
75. What is the context in which the term 'non-utility subject' is used in the above extract?

(1) Social Science has nothing to offer to improve human civilization

(2) Studying Social Science does not lead to well-paid jobs and material wealth

(3) Social Science is a subject that cannot be learnt for its utility

(4) Social Science is a dry and difficult subject having no use for educators or learners


76. Which of the following best conveys the essence of the above extract?     

(1) The way Social Science is taught to students does not enthuse them to take Social Science seriously

(2) Natural Sciences need to be given importance in school curriculum

(3) Students considered good in Natural Sciences are considered bright

(4) Social Sciences are inferior to Natural Sciences since they are non-utilitarian subjects


77. The significance of language in teaching-learning of Social Science cannot be over-emphasized. Which of the following statements does not convey the above idea?

(1) Effective understanding of the meaning and use of a language enhances learning in Social Science

(2) Language is of least significance in a fact-oriented subject like Social Science

(3) Only a language teacher can do justice to the teaching-learning process of Social Science

(4) Since language is important, a Social Science teacher should include comprehension and grammar questions in Social Science tests


78. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Social Science?

(1) Social Science encompasses diverse concerns of society, including historical, geographical, economic and political dimensions

(2) Social Science creates and widens human values such as freedom, respect for diversity, etc.

(3) As Social Science deals with people, the nature of enquiry is not scientific

(4) Social Science lays the foundations for an analytical and creative mindset


79. Which of the following is not a source material for writing oral history?

(1) The anecdotes of a person who participated in the 'Quit India Movement'

(2) A British soldier's oral account of the Sepoy Mutiny

(3) The memories of a person who migrated to Pakistan from India at the time of Partition

(4) A scholar talking about today's education system


80. Which of the following statements about the title of NCERT History textbook, 'Our Pasts', as expressed by the authors, is not correct?

(1) It is about the pasts of neighbouring countries

(2) It does not talk about the times of kings and queens only

(3) It tries to bring out contribution of various groups or communities like farmers and artisans

(4) It emphasizes the notion that India does not have just 'one past' but 'many pasts'


81. The following question is given under the heading 'Let's discuss' at the end of a chapter: 'Why do you think ordinary men and women did not generally keep records of what they did ?' What is the relevance of asking this question?

(1) Such questions encourage guesswork and so should not be given

(2) Ordinary men and women lead common lives. There is nothing great or of significance to write about them

(3) It is good to ignite a discussion and let students come out with their reasoning

(4) Questions which do not have fixed answers should not be given, as they will confuse the students


82. Which type of questions will not develop critical thinking among students ?

(1) Closed-ended questions

(2) Open-ended questions

(3) Probing questions

(4) Divergent questions


83. While discussing gender roles in the classroom, you would assert that

(1) there are different professions for men and women

(2) boys need to attend school as they are the future earning members of the family

(3) gender stereotypes in society need to be addressed meaningfully

(4) household work should not be seen as productive


84. The approach of the 'Social and Political Life' textbooks of NCERT is to

(1) give the learner one correct answer for a question

(2) focus the attention of the learners on the factual content of lessons
(3) use definitions to sum up a concept

(4) use case studies and narratives to explain concepts


85. Which of the following questions would help build the critical thinking skills of students ?

(1) 'All communicable diseases are water borne'. State whether true or false.

(2) Comment on the 'double burden of women's work'.

(3) Write two measures the government has adopted to control pollution.

(4) What is the government's role in Indian Health and Indian Education?


86. You are teaching 'Unity in Diversity' to the students of Class-VIII. Which of the following activities would you do to make the students understand the concept effectively?

(1) Write an essay on the river disputes between States of India

(2) Prepare a model of the Hydro-electric project near the school

(3) Conduct' a test after the lesson is thoroughly taught

(4) Present a feature on the different dance forms of our country appreciating their underlying similarities and differences

87. Diagnostic testing in Social Science will help a teacher understand

(1) the part of the topic the student has not memorised

(2) learning difficulties a student is facing in Social Science

(3) how revision work has helped her students

(4) how intelligent her students are


88. Choose the most inappropriate statement regarding teaching of Social Science in middle school.

(1) Social Science should be taught as it helps to acquire an understanding of human relationships

(2) Social Science should be taught as it helps sensitize children regarding social reality

(3) Social Science should be taught because it helps students debate and reflect on social issues

(4) Social Science should be a part of the curriculum so that the learners 'know about the lives of kings and the battles they fought


89. Doing activities with children will be effective only if

(1) the teacher does not know why she is doing it

(2) the teacher conducts them to complete her 'Lesson Plan'

(3) the teacher does them as a pretence to obey her principal's directions for activity-based learning

(4) she believes that activity-based education will help the child in understanding the concepts


90. Which of the following should not be a part of the Social Science instructional process?

(1) Planning

(2) Dictation of facts

(3) Feedback mechanism

(4) Implementation





Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 91 to 99) by selecting the most appropriate option.

Surviving a Snakebite

1 Annually, there are a million cases of snakebite in India and of these, close to 50,000 succumb to the bites.

2 When you look around the countryside, where most bites occur, and notice people's habits and lifestyles, these figures aren't surprising. People walk barefoot without a torch at night when they are most likely to step on a foraging venomous snake.
3 We encourage rodents by disposing waste food out in the open, or by storing foodgrains in the house. Attracted by the smell of rats, snakes enter houses and when one crawls over someone asleep on the floor and the person twitches or rolls over, it may bite in defence.

4 Once bitten, we don't rush to the hospital. Instead, we seek out the nearest conman, tie tourniquets, eat vile tasting herbal chutneys, apply poultices or spurious stones, cut/slice/suck the bitten spot, and other ghastly time-consuming deadly "remedies".

5 As Rom cattily remarks : "If the snake hasn't injected enough venom, even popping an aspirin can save your life." That's the key - snakes inject venom voluntarily and we have no w

dinesh bhalla

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« Reply #1 on: July 26, 2011, 04:27:08 PM »
next questions plz


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« Reply #2 on: July 26, 2011, 07:48:22 PM »
click this link to know result


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« Reply #3 on: September 14, 2011, 02:35:55 PM »
do anyone have information about this??????

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« Reply #4 on: September 14, 2011, 04:04:07 PM »
ho gye gal clear g ?


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« Reply #5 on: September 14, 2011, 04:46:26 PM »


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« Reply #6 on: September 15, 2011, 02:54:07 PM »
sir,,,mene b iss blog pr kai member ki newspaper cuttings padhi hain,,,,jisme ki punjab k unemployed teachers ye keh rhe hain ki,,,,jaise haryana me ctet ka certificate applicable ya valid hai,,,vaise he punjab me bhi kraa jaye,,,,bt sir,,i hve read haryana htet prospectus,,,usme aisa kuch hi nai likha ki,,,ctet certificate is valid in haryana.,?????? now what is true????? unable to understand?????




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CTET ke punjab me manta ke lye case ke new date 19 July hae

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ki PSTET or CTET service book ch add ho skda hai .?

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